I see, so it’s basically meaning that since the Neolithic Revolution, we have just evolved even further, resulting in things like no longer relying on sustaining ourselves. So although we use some of the same practices as what the Neolithic Revolution discovered, what differentiates then and now is the fact that back then, we were totally self sustaining while society JUST began developing, discovering things like money and trade, and now… Im struggling to figure out just how to word it but basically, we kept developing and developing into what we are now, which is highly processed and refined foods for convenience and shelf life, shipping food all around the world, depending solely on currency, etc., and yet we’re still less healthy than agrarian people.
And with that said, I suppose Agrarian people would be those who would’ve had to grow their own food, farm their own animals, totally depend on themselves for survival etc.? Therefore, we would not still be considered agrarian people because we no longer do these types of things to survive. These would be the distinct differences between Neolithic times and present times, even though we still practice similar things, just on a much larger and convenient scale. Would that be correct?
I hope this all makes sense!